if you think they’re misusing the term, just get to your point and explain why. asking people tedious questions multiple comments in a row just comes off as sea-lioning.
The crime of apartheid is defined by the 2002 Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court as inhumane acts of a character similar to other crimes against humanity “committed in the context of an institutionalized regime of systematic oppression and domination by one racial group over any other racial group or groups and committed with the intention of maintaining that regime”.[1]
Seeing as Israel is relatively diverse, and includes Muslims in all aspects of life, including the government, Israel simply doesn’t have apartheid.
Meanwhile, Gaza is 98% Sunni Muslim after the genocide, and I guess technically they don’t have apartheid either, simply because all their Jews are either dead or they fled. You can’t have a separation in a pure society like Gaza.
if you think they’re misusing the term, just get to your point and explain why. asking people tedious questions multiple comments in a row just comes off as sea-lioning.
Ok, I’m just going to pull the definition from Wikipedia, since it’s the first Google result, but any dictionary will do.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crime_of_apartheid
Israel has Muslim politicians. (Just scroll down, trying to link directly to the section is pain on mobile) https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Israeli_Arab_Muslims
Seeing as Israel is relatively diverse, and includes Muslims in all aspects of life, including the government, Israel simply doesn’t have apartheid.
Meanwhile, Gaza is 98% Sunni Muslim after the genocide, and I guess technically they don’t have apartheid either, simply because all their Jews are either dead or they fled. You can’t have a separation in a pure society like Gaza.