I was reading about the allegations against Russell Brand and couldn’t help but wonder how it works legally that his revenue can be blocked based on allegations and before any juridical ruling.
Don’t get me wrong I don’t know much about the guy and what he did or didn’t do and agree that anyone should be punished according to their crimes.
But how is this possible with the principal of innocent until proven guilty? I’d be happy if someone could explain me.
YouTube is not the government. They have no obligation to host him or anyone else, regardless of presumption of innocence. That’s a court thing, they have to presume innocence. No private company does though.
Further, he is not an employee of YouTube or Google. So they have no employer-employee relationship and his video monetization bears no connection with employment law.